A note on Banach spaces containing \(c_ 0\) or \(C_{\infty}\) (Q1068320): Difference between revisions

The following result is proven: If a separable Banach space X contains a copy of \(c_ 0\) then there is a subspace \(Y\subset X\) with basis such that X/Y has a basis. It is an open question whether this assertion remains true without the assumption \(c_ 0\subset X.\) Furthermore, Y can be arranged to that \(X/Y\sim c_ 0/C_{\infty}\), hence X/Y is independent of X and Y. Here \(C_{\infty}=(\sum \oplus E_ n)_{(\infty)}\) where \((E_ n)\) is a sequence of finite dimensional Banach spaces such that for any finite dimensional Banach space F and \(\epsilon >0\) there is \(E_ n\) with \(d(E_ n,F)\leq 1+\epsilon\) (d(.,.) denotes the Banach-Mazur distance). Finally it is shown that \(X\oplus C_{\infty}\) has a basis whenever X is separable and has the bounded approximation property. This answers a question of W. Johnson.