On the zero-one-pole set of a meromorphic function. II (Q919484): Difference between revisions

[For part I see the author in ibid. 12, No.1, 9-22 (1989; Zbl 0672.30028).] Let f and g be meromorphic functions in the plane C. If f and g assume the value \(a\in C\cup \{\infty \}\) with the same multiplicities, we denote this by \(f=a\Leftrightarrow g=a\). The author proves a number of theorems. The following is typical: Theorem. Let f and g be nonconstant meromorphic functions satisfying \(f=0\Leftrightarrow g=0\), \(f=1\Leftrightarrow g=1\) and \(f=\infty \Leftrightarrow g=\infty\). If \[ \limsup_{r\to \infty}\{\bar N(r,0,f)+\bar N(r,\infty,f)\}/T(r,f)<, \] then \(f\equiv g\) or fg\(\equiv 1\).