A direct proof of the functional Santaló inequality (Q1000653): Difference between revisions

Let \(f\) be a non-negative, integrable function on \({\mathbb R}^n\), let \((\int f)^{-1}(\int f(x)x\,\text{d}x)\) denote its barycenter, and let \(f^\circ(x) := \inf_{y\in{\mathbb R}^n}(\text{e}^{-\langle x,y\rangle}f(y)^{-1})\) be its polar function. Extending the Blaschke--Santaló inequality for convex bodies, it was proved by \textit{S. Artstein-Avidan, B. Klartag} and \textit{V. Milman} [Mathematika 51, No. 1--2, 33--48 (2004; Zbl 1121.52021)] (and for even \(f\) earlier by Keith Ball) that, if \(f^\circ\) has barycenter \(0\), then \[ \int_{{\mathbb R}^n} f(x)\,\text{d}x \int_{{\mathbb R}^n} f^\circ(y)\,\text{d}y \leq \left( \int_{{\mathbb R}^n} \text{e}^{-\frac{1}{2}|x|^2}\text{d}x \right)^2 = (2\pi)^n. \] The present paper gives short proofs for more general versions of this inequality.