Why the theorem of Scheffé should be rather called a theorem of Riesz (Q653814): Difference between revisions

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Latest revision as of 19:08, 4 July 2024

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Why the theorem of Scheffé should be rather called a theorem of Riesz
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    Why the theorem of Scheffé should be rather called a theorem of Riesz (English)
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    19 December 2011
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    The author presents Riesz's Lemma (\(f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)\) a.e.\ and \(\lim_n| | f_n| | _p=| | f| | _p\) imply \(\lim_n| | f_n-f| | _p=| | f| | _p\)) and Riesz's original elegant proof. In particular it is pointed out that \textit{H. Scheffe}'s Theorem of 1947 [Ann. Math. Stat. 18, 434--438 (1947; Zbl 0032.29002)] (stating that the distributions of a sequence \((f_n)\) of densities, which converges a.e.\ to a density \(f\), converges uniformly to the distribution of \(f\)) is actually a special case of Riesz's lemma of 1928.
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    Scheffé theorem
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    convergence in total variation
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    characterization of \(L_p\)-convergence
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