The behavior at infinity of an integrable function (Q690438): Difference between revisions

This is a free continuation of the paper [J. Math. Anal. Appl. 381, No. 2, 742--747 (2011; Zbl 1227.40002)] by the same authors. Consider a function \(f:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb R\) such that the Lebesgue integral \(\int_0^\infty f\) exists and is finite. Then it is not necessarily true that \(\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0\); however, the statement becomes true if we replace the usual limit by a limit in density. Given a density function \(d\) defined on the Borel subsets of \([0,\infty)\), we say that the limit of \(f\) at infinity in density is zero if \(d(\{t;\,|f(t)|\geq\varepsilon\})=0\) for every \(\varepsilon>0\). In this case, we write \[ (d)-\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0. \] In their previous paper, the authors have considered the densities \(d_0\), \(d_1\) given by \[ d_0(A)=\lim_{r\to\infty}{1\over r}\int_{A\cap[0,r)}\,{\mathrm d}t, \] \[ d_1(A)=\lim_{r\to\infty}{1\over \ln r}\int_{A\cap[1,r)}\,{{\mathrm d}t\over t}, \] and proved that \((d_0)-\lim_{x\to\infty}x f(x)=0\) and \((d_1)-\lim_{x\to\infty}(x\ln x)f(x)=0\) for every Lebesgue integrable function \(f:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb R\). In the present paper, they extend the previous results by proving that every Lebesgue integrable function \(f:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb R\) satisfies \[ (d_n)-\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\prod_{k=0}^n\ln^{(k)}x\right)f(x)=0,\quad n\in\mathbb N, \] where \(d_n\) is the density given by \[ d_n(A)=\lim_{r\to\infty}{1\over \ln^{(n)} r}\int_{A\cap[\exp^{(n-1)}1,r)}\,{{\mathrm d}t\over \prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\ln^{(k)}t}, \] and \(g^{(k)}\) stands for the \(k\)-th iterate of a function \(g\).