A simple counterexample to Havil's ``reformulation'' of the Riemann hypothesis (Q442466): Difference between revisions

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A simple counterexample to Havil's ``reformulation'' of the Riemann hypothesis
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    A simple counterexample to Havil's ``reformulation'' of the Riemann hypothesis (English)
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    11 August 2012
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    In his book [Gamma: Exploring Euler's constant. Princeton, NJ: Princeton University Press (2003; Zbl 1023.11001), pbk (2009; Zbl 1177.11001)] \textit{J. Havil} claims that the following conjecture is a ``tantalizing simple reformulation'' of the Riemann Hypothesis (RH): Havil's conjecture: If \[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^a}\cos(b\ln n)=0\quad \text{and}\quad \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^a}\sin(b\ln n)=0 \] for some pair of real numbers \(a\) and \(b\), then \(a=1/2\). In this nicely written article the author first explains the RH and its connection with Havil's conjecture. Then he gives a counter-example to Havil's conjecture (but not to RH) by setting the pair of real numbers \(a=1\) and \(b=2\pi/\ln 2\). In the last section he gives a corrected version of Havil's conjecture changing the then part to ``\(a=1/2\) or \(a=1\)'' and proves that new conjecture is true if and only if the RH is true.
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    Havil's conjecture
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    Riemann hypothesis
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