On Ozaki's condition for \(p\)-valency (Q1747386): Difference between revisions

Let \(\mathbb D\) be the complex unit disc and \(\mathcal A(p)\) the class of all analytic functions in \(\mathbb D\), of the form \(f(z)=z^p+\displaystyle\sum_{n=p+1}^\infty a_nz^n\). The main result in the article is the following: Theorem: For \(p\geq 2\) and \(f\in\mathcal A (p)\) with \[ \Re\{f^{(p)}(z)\}>-\frac{p!}{2}\left(1+\left|\frac{1}{p!}\frac{f^{(p-1)}(z)}{z}\right|^2\right) \] we have that \(\Re\left\{\frac{f^{p-1}(z)}{z}\right\}>0\) in \(\mathbb D\). From this theorem the authors deduce the following improvement of Ozaki's condition for \(p\)-valence: If \(f\in\mathcal{A}(p)\) for \(p\geq2\) and \(\mathfrak{Re}\left\{f^{(p)}(z)\right\} < -\frac{p!}{2}\), for all \(z\in\mathbb{D}\), then \(f\) is at most \(p\)-valent in \(\mathbb{D}\).