3 in 1: a simple way to prove that \(e^r\), \(\mathrm{ln}(r)\) and \(\pi^2\) are irrational (Q670728): Difference between revisions

The main result of tis paper is that if \(J_n(z)=z^{n+1}\int _0^1 \frac 1{n!} (t^n(1-t)^n)^{(n)} e^{zt}dt\) does not eventualy vanish then not both \(z\) and \(e^z\) can be Gaussian rationals. The proof makes use the Padé approximation.