Realizations of maps (Q1151470)

A map \(\varphi\) from a measure space \(X\) to the measure algebra \(\mathcal E\) of a measure space \(Y\) is said to be ``realizable'' if there is a measurable subset \(E\) of \(X\times Y\) such that, for each \(x\in X\), \(\varphi(x)\) is the measure class of the corresponding section \(E_x\) of \(E\). Regard \(\mathcal E\) as a metric space, with distance \( = \) measure of symmetric difference. Call \(\varphi\) ``essentially separable-valued'' if there is a null set \(N\subset X\) such that \(\varphi(X\backslash N)\) is separable. It is proved (assuming the measures involved to be finite and complete) that \(\varphi\) is realizable if and only if \(\varphi\) is both measurable and essentially separable-valued. If the cardinal of \(X\) is not real-valued measurable, or if \(\mathcal E\) is countably generated, then \(\varphi\) is realizable if and only if \(\varphi\) is measurable. But if a real-valued measurable cardinal exists, then (for suitable \(X\) and \(Y)\) there exists a measurable \(\varphi\) that is not realizable. If \(X\) and \(Y\) are metric spaces with Borel measures, and if \(Y\) is separable, then \(\varphi\) is Borel measurable if and only if \(\varphi\) has a Borel realization \(E\). Problem: If further \(X\) and \(Y\) are uncountable Polish spaces, and \(\varphi\) is Borel measurable, is there a measurable ``universal'' subset of \(X\times X\times Y\) whose sections form precisely all the Borel realizations of \(\varphi\) ? A partial result in this direction is obtained.