Real Analyticity: From Calculus Class to the Grauert-Morrey Theorem (Q2730833)

From the author's Introduction: ``It often happens in mathematics that what seems to be an elementary question can transmogrify itself into something of extreme profundity. This article is about something like that, a problem that could at first sight seem to be an exercise for a calculus book. But as you look at it, the problem expands to lead directly to truly profound mathematics and to one of the great theorems of the modern era.'' The problem the author is speaking about is the following question: Suppose \(h: (0,1)\to (0,1)\) is a real analytic function with \(h^\prime(x)>0\) for all \(x\in (0,1)\) and with \(\lim_{x\to 0^+}h(x)=0\) and \(\lim_{x\to 1^-}h(x)=1\). In particular, \(h\) is a one-to-one onto mapping of \((0,1)\) to itself with a real analytic inverse \(h^{-1}: (0,1)\to (0,1)\). Is there a pair of nonconstant real analytic functions \(f_1: (-\infty,1)\to\mathbb R\) and \(f_2: (0,+\infty)\to\mathbb R\) with \(f_1(x)=f_2(h(x))\) for all \(x\in(0,1)\)?