Domination of operators in the non-commutative setting (Q2866756)

Suppose that \(E\) and \(F\) are ordered Banach spaces and \(S\) and \(T\) are operators in \(L(E,F)\) such that \(0\leq S\leq T.\) If \(T\) belongs to a certain ideal of operators \(\mathfrak{I}\), does this imply that \(S\) also belongs to \(\mathfrak{I}\)? The paper under review describes several non-commutative instances for which the answer is positive. These refer to the case where \(E\) and/or \(F\) are \(C^{\ast}\)-algebras, preduals of von Neumann algebras or non-commutative function spaces. For example, it is shown that when \(E\) and \(F\) are \(C^{\ast}\)-algebras, then the following two assertions are equivalent: (i) if \(0\leq S\leq T\) and \(T\) is compact, then \(S\) is compact, too; (ii) the spectrum of every self-adjoint element of \(E\) is countable, or every order interval \([0,x]\) of \(F\) is compact.