Hyperbolicity in a class of one-dimensional maps (Q748990)

The author proves that the set \(\Lambda =\cap^{\infty}_{i=1}f^{- i}(<0,1>)\) is hyperbolic in the sense that for k large enough we have \(| (f^ k)'| >1\) for all \(x\in \Lambda\), where f is the one- dimensional map defined as \[ f(x)=b[\frac{1}{2r}-(x-\frac{1}{2})^ r],\quad b>2^ r,\quad r=4,6,8,... \]