Question 16292.
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Aus \textit{Keynes} ``Formal Logic stammt die folgende Frage: ``Whatever \(P\) and \(Q\) may stand for, we may show à priori, that some \(P\) is \(Q\). For All \(PQ\) is \(Q\) by the law of identity, and similarly All \(PQ\) is \(P\); therefore by a syllogism in Darapti, Some \(P\) is \(Q\). -- How would you deal with this paradox? Diese Frage beantwortet \textit{MacColl}.
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