No label defined (Q3147197)

Let \(\sum^\infty_0 a_n\) be a given infinite series with the sequence of partial sums \(\{s_n\}\). Given two sequences \(\{p_n\}\) and \(\{q_n\}\) we write \[ (p* q)_n= \sum^n_{k=0} p_{n-k} q_k \] and \[ t^{p,q}_n= {1\over (p*q)_n} \sum^n_{k=0} p_{n-k} q_k s_k. \] The series \(\sum^\infty_0 a_n\) is said to be summable \(|N,p_n,q_n|\) if \(\sum^\infty_{n=0}|t^{p,q}_n- t^{p,q}_{n-1}|< \infty\). The main result of the author is: Theorem. If \(\sum^\infty_{n=1} \{\sum^n_{j=1} ({R^j_n\over R_n}- {R^j_{n-1}\over R_{n-1}})^2|a_j|^2\}^{1/2}< \infty\), then the orthogonal series \(\sum^\infty_{n=0} a_n\varphi_n(x)\) is summable \(|N,p_n,q_n|\) almost everywhere, where \(\{\varphi_n(x)\}\) is an orthonormal system in \((a,b)\) and \(R^j_n= \sum^n_{k=j} p_{n-k} q_k\).